For those who opt to self-study or who want more references, PMP exam prep books are affordable and accessible resources. Below are the. This title is not currently available for download. Share. site App Ad. Look inside this book. PMP Exam Prep Questions, Answers & Explanations by. Since you want to know about the PMP Question Bank, I am assuming you are already in the process of preparation for your PMP Certification.

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Practice exams included in this book cover the entire scope of the PMP exam, while shorter quizzes focus only on specific Knowledge Areas. New Direct download questions-answers/. Pass your PMP Exam. Easily! Use The PM Exam Simulator to prepare for your PMP Exam, PMI-ACP Exam or CAPM Exam. You will be well-prepared with the.

Shonte McDowell shared that she took the exams one month after she bought the book. She passed and is convinced that having this resource was the main reason she got through. The Introduction gives an overview of the PMP exam. The second part fills most of this exam prep book with 18 Lite Mock Exams and 11 knowledge area quizzes including one for Project Management Framework in addition to the ten knowledge areas.

The last two parts contain PMP formulas and exam-taking tips. The quizzes will take only one hour so reviewers will find it more convenient to take and slip it within their busy schedule. The practice tests on specific knowledge areas can help those studying to gauge which area they need to study more.

Some readers found a few typographical and grammatical errors disconcerting as they study in all seriousness. It is generally well-written and arranged though, if not for these minor editing flaws. Reviewers comment that the questions were harder than the official test.

C - The stakeholder register is developed during the Identify Stakeholders process. Project work packages are typically decomposed into smaller components called activities that represent the work necessary to complete the work package. C - Contingency funds are used to handle cost uncertainty due to unknown downloads that may be needed during a project. These funds are generally used for items that are likely to occur, but not certain to occur.

C - Staffing is typically the highest during the execution phase of the project. The other three responses may not hold true. Projects can move forward into subsequent phases without the deliverables of the prior phase being completely approved - this is known as fast tracking.

Changes during the initial phases of the project are the least expensive. The influence of the stakeholders is the highest during the start of the project and reduces as the project moves to completion. D - Standardized stakeholder list is not a valid organizational asset used in the Plan Human Resource Management process. The others are valid assets. Other assets are: Historical information on org structures that have worked in previous projects and organizational processes and policies.

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A - All of the given choices correctly define the project stakeholders. However, the key stakeholders are the subset of the project stakeholders that are in a decision making position. A - Change request is not a valid response. D - A probability and impact matrix will help filter the high risk items and high impact items from the others so that you can focus your attention on these riskier items. C - Control Costs is the process of managing the project's costs and the changes that threaten the bottom line.

A - The fixed price contract works best with a very well defined project scope. A - Resisting to change is not a valid interpersonal skill. The rest of the choices are examples of interpersonal skills. B - The work package is the lowest and most detailed level of the WBS and can be scheduled, cost estimated, monitored, and controlled.

C - Notifying project stakeholders and following proper procedures for dealing with budget variances is the best response. Attempting to pass off or hide an unexpected expense in another budget or in expense reports rather than following proper procedures is dishonest and unprofessional. The PMI code of ethics requires project managers to be honest, take responsibility for errors, and to follow all organizational rules and policies.

Responsibility] B - The make-or-download analysis is a technique used by the project manager to determine whether a particular work can be best completed by the project team or should be procured from outside sources. D - Start to Finish relationships indicate that the next task is not able to be completed until the one preceding it has started.

This is not commonly used. C - A RACI chart outlines, in matrix form, the project tasks and who is responsible, accountable, consultable, and informable for each task.

C - While organizational and cultural differences can cause conflict, the project manager is bound by the code of ethics to practice honestly, respect, professionalism, and to follow policies, regulations, and laws pertaining.

The best choice is to decline the gift, and confer with management about gift policies. B - Since this will be an official project document, it should be formal in nature. Additionally, since you are requesting money from someone higher up in the organization, you are creating a vertical communication. B - The Delphi technique involves anonymous questionnaires circulated to a group of experts and provides an unbiased assessment of the risks. B - All of the given choices are the components of the project management plan that can be utilized during the Control Stakeholder Engagement process.

However, the key project stakeholders are usually not interested in the minor From the given choices, 'the selected project management processes for the project' is the weakest choice. B - Stage Gates, Phase Gates and Kill Points refer to the same term and refer to a phase end review with the objective of obtaining authorization to close the current phase and starting the next one. This is a retrospective review of the current phase. The phase planning, on the other hand, is carried out early during the planning phase of the project.

It is used for tracing requirements to project scope, objectives, and test strategy. Tracing requirements to project risk is not a valid use. The other three are valid inputs. A - During the procurement process, predefined criteria are used to select vendors to supply goods and services.

Circumventing this process to benefit a friend is a conflict of interest and is unfair to other vendors competing in good faith. The project management code of ethics demands that practitioners adhere to its standards at all times.

The best response is to notify the project stakeholders that you have a conflict of interest, and excuse yourself from the selection committee. C - The Identify Risks process is an ongoing, iterative process as risks are often identified throughout the project's life cycle. D - Risk categories provide a structure that ensures a comprehensive process of systematically identifying risks and contribute to the effectiveness and quality of the process.

A - The method used by most project management software packages to construct a project schedule network diagram is Activity-On-Node AON. This uses boxes or rectangles, called nodes to represent activities and connects them with arrows showing the logical relationship between them. A - The WBS is a hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed by the project team and defines the total scope of the project. It represents the work specified in the current approved project scope statement.

C - Creating the WBS is a very important process, but often a previous WBS can be used as a template to save time and the potential rework of forgetting something important. A - Finish to Start relationships indicate that the next task is not able to start until the one preceding it is completed.

This is the most commonly used type of activity relationship. A - Since you have little authority over the projects you manage, you are working for a weak matrix organization. In such organizations the functional managers have more authority. You need to use the 'Negotiation' tool and technique from the Acquire Project Team process in order to obtain the required resources from the functional managers.

A - A quality audit should be a structured process performed by an independent entity to provide the best results. C - A hierarchical-type organization chart can clearly show roles and reporting relationships within a team. D - A project initiator or sponsor external to the project, at a level that is appropriate to funding the project, authorizes the project charter.

A - The project manager needs to recognize that the stakeholders could have conflicting interests and objectives. It is the responsibility of the project manager to successfully manage the stakeholders' expectations.

D - While it is not feasible to invite everyone to the risk identification meetings, everybody should be encouraged to identify risks as they encounter them. C - Upper and lower control limits allow the control chart to serve its purpose of indicating when a process is in or out of control.

A - Rolling Wave Planning is a technique used to create a more detailed work plan while keeping the right level of detail for each activity - activities happening sooner have more detail than those further in the future. Framework Test Questions 1. Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Team process?

Resource Requirements B. Resource Conflicts C. Resource Calendars D.

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Resource Breakdown Structure 2. Successful conflict management results in: Decreased productivity but positive working relationships. Greater productivity and positive working relationships.

Greater productivity but negative working relationships. Decreased productivity and negative working relationships. The transition from one phase to another within a project's life cycle e. Kill point B. Monte Carlo C. Constraint D. Decision tree 4. Planning Processes B. Closing Processes. Controlling Processes D. Executing Processes 5. Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor?

Configuration management knowledge base B. Change control procedures C. Historical information D. Commercial databases 6. Estimating the type and quantities of material, people, equipment or supplies required to perform each activity is: Estimate Activity Workload B.

Estimate Activity Input C. Activity Resource Requirements D. Estimate Activity Resources 7. Which of the following is a classic organizational structure? Functional B. Projectized C. Composite D. Matrix 8. Fill in the blank: Progressive management B. Iterative elaboration C. Waterfall development D. Progressive elaboration 9. Defining a new project or a new phase of an existing project relates to: Initiating process B. Planning process C. Scope management process D. Control process Which of the following is not a project competing constraint?

Budget B. Procurement C. Risk D. Resource Answers 1. C - Resource calendars are input of the Develop Project Team process. B - Successful conflict management results in greater productivity and positive working relationships. A - The transition from one phase to another within a project's lifecycle generally involves, and is usually defined by, some form of technical transfer or handoff. These are also called as kill points. B - A project is a finite effort; the Initiating Process Group starts the cycle, and the closing Process Group ends the cycle.

D - The commercial databases are considered enterprise environmental factors. Rest of the choices are organizational process assets. D - Estimate Activity Resources is the process of estimating the type and quantities of material, people, equipment or supplies required to perform each activity.

A - A functional organization is a classical organizational structure. D - Progressive elaboration is a characteristic of projects that allows a project management team to manage it to a greater level as the project evolves. A - The Initiating process group consists of the processes performed to define a new project or a new phase of an existing project by obtaining authorization to start the project of phase.

B - Six competing project constraints are scope, quality, schedule, budget, resources and risk. Procurement is not a project competing constraint. Exam 2 Test Questions 1. You are managing a multi-million dollar project, and discover several critical pieces of data in the project information repository have been modified without authorization.

Determine the extent of the data breach, and implement security procedures to prevent a recurrence. Determine the extent of the data breach and notify the appropriate project and company staff of the incident. Determine the extent of the data breach, and restore the modified data from a backup. Determine the extent of the data breach, and setup auditing to track further unauthorized access. If you are developing a Project Management Plan, how should you determine the level of detail to be included in the plan?

Always only provide a summary or high level plan B. Include only the details your manager specifically requested C. Always provide the maximum level of detail possible D. Provide the level of detail based on the project complexity and application area 3. If you want to have multiple vendors bid on your contract, what is the best way to ensure that all vendors have the same information before bidding?

Issue a standard request for bid and do not allow any questions B. Hold a bidder conference C.

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Communicate only through email D. Develop a qualified sellers list 4. Randy is managing a project and identifies that there are 8 stakeholders in the project. He is worried that he might end up with an unmanageable number of communication channels. In your view, how many communication channels does Randy have to plan for? Julie is currently populating her project's stakeholder register with the names and details of the people identified during the Identify Stakeholders process.

Some of these people are not supporting the project but they can directly influence the project. Julie is adding these people to her project's stakeholder register because?

These people are negative stakeholders and they have to be closely Although these people are not stakeholders, they have influence over the project. Julie is adding them to the stakeholder register as they are potential project stakeholders. Although these are not stakeholders, their names were identified during the Identify Stakeholders process.

You have been asked to establish a project charter for your new project. Company president or CEO B. Project initiator or sponsor C. Key project stakeholders D. Project manager 7. In general, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is: As a project manager, you are performing various project performance measurements to assess the magnitude of variation. You then attempt to determine the cause and decide whether corrective action is required.

This would be known as: Scope Analysis B. Variance Analysis C. Performance Reporting D. Configuration Management 9. Two efficiency indicators that reflect the cost and schedule performance of a project are: Sarah has just started the Identify Stakeholders process for her project.

She is currently looking for a template for the stakeholder register so that she doesn't have to reinvent the wheel. Where can she find stakeholder register templates? Organizational process assets Project charter C. Project management plan D. Enterprise environmental factors If you want to compress a project schedule, what are two of the recommended alternatives to consider? Crashing and Fast Tracking C.

Crashing and Schedule Network Analysis A project manager wishes to expand an existing list of sellers. Which of the following techniques should she consider? Bidder conferences B. Make or download analysis C. Analytical techniques D. Advertising Control Chart B. Statistical Sampling C.

Flowcharting D. Scatter Diagram Which quality control technique or tool should be used when trying to determine the cause of a major defect? Pareto Chart B. Control Chart C. Histogram D. Fishbone diagram During a project update meeting for the key stakeholders, the schedule of some project activities was challenged. The VP Operations challenged that some of the critical path activities cannot be executed as scheduled as they will disturb critical operations.

The VP has requested rescheduling of these tasks so that they are carried out during the non-working times of the business. What should the project manager do first?

Analyze the impact of change B. Record the issue in the issue log C. Send the change request to the change control board for the approval D. Produce a change request Why is it important to have a staff release plan for people within the project It helps people manage their time.

The project protects itself from lawsuit. It is not important. The project saves money by releasing people from the project at the right time and morale is also improved. Midway through a project, a project manager determined that the project was running way behind schedule.

If the project manager needs to shorten the project schedule, without changing the project scope, which of the following schedule compression techniques could be applied? Crashing B. Reserve Analysis C. Forecasting D. Last Tracking At the end of a project, what will your schedule variance be equal to? Zero B. Equal to the total PV C. One D. Equal to the total EV Quantitative risk analysis should be performed: While a co-worker is out on vacation for two weeks, you are standing in for her as the project manager of a process improvement project.

During project meetings it becomes apparent that there is a great deal of conflict between stakeholders, and as you review the project documentation you discover that the vacationing project manager has made several critical project decisions without collecting inputs from the stakeholders. Some of these decisions resulted in changes to the project scope, and did not go through the formal change management process. Do nothing as you are a temporary project manager.

Notify the project stakeholders and sponsor that the project scope has changed without proper authorization. Update the requirements document to include the scope changes. Make a formal change request to incorporate all previously unauthorized changes made to the scope. While analyzing a project, the project manager calculated the ratio of the The project manager decided that this was an unfavorable condition to the project and decided to take corrective action.

What is your view? The project manager is correct. The project manager is not correct. Which of these is not an approved Estimate Activity Durations technique? Three Point Estimating B. Parametric Estimating C. Analogous Estimating D. Critical Path Estimation If you are working on a project where there is no definite project detailed scope, but similar projects have been completed in the past, what is the correct Estimate Activity Durations tool to use?

Analogous Estimating B. Critical Path Estimation D. Three Point Estimating As project manager, you would like to show the relationship between two variables to help your project team understand the quality impacts better. Which tool should be used? Scatter Diagram B. Run Chart C. Pareto Chart You have been called in to give an executive presentation on the status of your project.

Just before you walk into the meeting, you are informed that a critical resource for the project is no longer available, and could result in a substantial delay to the project.

However, you believe there may be an alternative resource that could be used. What do you tell the executive committee? Wait until you have all facts before you advise the executive team.

Ask your deputy project manager to add this to the risk database, Advise the executive team of the situation exactly as you know it to be at that moment. Do not mention it to the executive team because you know that you have enough reserve to support a 2 month delay.

In a cause and effect diagram, which of these is not a potential cause? Personnel B. Problem statement C. Time D. Material Which of the following is inaccurately represented by the term Progressive elaboration? Changes to project scope B.

Rolling wave planning C. Detailing out the product requirements which were developed during the initiation process. Production of fabrication and construction drawings from the design drawings for a chemical plant.

Which document describes the project's deliverables and the work required to create those deliverables? Project authorization document B. Project scope management plan D. Project charter During a presentation to management, you want to display the project schedule with only the key deliverables displayed. What is the correct tool for this purpose? Project schedule network diagram B. Critical path network C. Milestone chart D. Critical chain diagram Susan is about to review her project stakeholder management plan to make some necessary adjustments.

She has got her project management plan, the recent issue log and the work performance data. Which of the following inputs is still missing for this process? Project charter B. Stakeholder management plan C. Project documents Communication management plan Which of these items are important to address when determining each person's role in the project team?

Role, authority, responsibility, and competency B. Role, responsibility, and competency C. Role and responsibility D. Role, authority, and competency If you want to reduce the number of quality inspections and thus reduce the cost of quality control for your project, which technique should be used?

Run Chart B. Defect Repair Review C. Statistical Sampling D. When beginning a new outsourcing project, what is the best way to determine which companies you should request a bid from? Send your proposal to the company you last worked with B. Have someone else manage this part of the process C. Send your proposal to everyone D. Consult the qualified sellers list Which of the following is not a general management technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the project work?

Lateral thinking B. Analysis of alternatives C. Map Out D. Your boss advises you that your final project schedule and budget must be ready to present to the executive steering committee at a meeting later this week. A draft schedule has been completed based on estimates provided by your team. However, they have not yet had a chance to review the schedule to be sure their estimates are appropriate and realistic. Timing constraints make it impossible to complete this review before the meeting.

What is the best approach? Present the estimate to your boss first and explain the basis of estimate. Declare the faulty estimate to the executive steering committee. Deny the request to present the estimate to the executive steering Where would you find a detailed list and description of specific project assumptions associated with the project? Project configuration document D. Change management plan The date through which the project has provided actual status and accomplishments is called: Data Date DD B.

Due Date DD C. Project Date PD D.

Reporting Date RD Which of these is NOT a risk diagramming technique? System or process flow charts B. Cause and effect diagram C. RACI chart D. Influence diagrams Which of the following is a tool or technique for the Develop Project Team process?

Organizational charts B. Colocation C. Acquisition D. Conflict management A hierarchical structure of resources organized by resource type category and resource type used in resource leveling schedules is known as: Team structure B. Resource Pool C. Organization breakdown Structure D.

Resource Breakdown Structure A Project Manager's primary professional responsibility is towards: The performing organization B. All stakeholders D. Customers The project is over budget. The project is right on budget. The project is under budget. The project is ahead of schedule. Which of the following statements is correct? A collection of unrelated programs can constitute a portfolio.

The scope of a portfolio is typically smaller than that of a program. A program is a group of unrelated projects. A program need not consist of projects. A project team member finds that the color scheme of the webpage he is designing appears too gaudy and decides to change it to a mellowed down color scheme.

The independent testing team flags this as a defect and there is a heated discussion between the team member and the testing team. The testing team is incorrect in flagging this as a defect. This is an example of expert judgment, wherein historical expertise is being brought into the project. The testing team is correct.

Even though the new color scheme is more pleasing than the old one, the appropriate change management process has not been followed and the work product is not as per design. The testing team is not right in flagging this down. The color scheme is a simple matter and the new colors are definitely more pleasing than the old ones. The testing team is correct in flagging this down. The team member should have sent a note along with the work product indicating that the color scheme change had been made.

Which of the following items needs to be kept in mind when relying on risk identification checklists? They are biased. They are not exhaustive. They are often inaccurate. They are easy to prepare. One of your team- members reports a break-through in automating some of the testing activities.

This will potentially result in cost savings to the project as well as the project getting completed ahead of schedule by a month. Which of the following actions would you take? This is confidential information within your project team and need not be shared with the customer. The savings will be additional profits on the project. Communicate the current status and inform the customer that you will be incorporating some additional features to use up the savings in cost and time since it has been budgeted for.

Communicate the current status to the customer and indicate the potential changes to cost and schedule. Communicate the savings in cost and time to the customer. What is the advantage of preparing an estimate of costs by an outside professional estimator?

To determine if a lump sum contract should be used B. To determine the project funding limits C. To hold vendors accountable to a certain price D. To serve as a comparison point for incoming estimates Which of the following may help in ensuring that certain bidders in the procurement process do not receive preferential treatment that all prospective sellers have a clear and common understanding of the procurement?

Use of weighted criteria B. Use of bidder conferences C. Use of screening techniques D. Use of expert judgment If you have an unresolved issue while working on a project, what is the best way to communicate that issue?

Assume that someone else is already working on it B. Write an email describing the issue C. Create an issue log D. Complain to a fellow colleague Is this the appropriate place for these items? No, these are stand alone documents only. Yes, you should unquestioningly include anything your manager suggests. No, these documents should not be created until later in the project.

Yes, include them in the Project Management Plan. On obtaining the project charter, the Project Manager of a project Is this correct? Acquisition of the project team is primarily an Initiating Process Group activity. The project manager needs to get the team together as soon as the project starts. It is the responsibility of the project sponsor to provide the team for execution. Acquisition of the project team is primarily an Executing Process Group activity.

B - Notification of the appropriate staff of an information security breach, and providing detail to assist with an investigation is the appropriate response. The project manager is responsible for maintaining an accurate project information base and protecting the intellectual property of others, per the code of ethics. Failing to notify project or corporate staff that there has been unauthorized access to critical information violates the PMI code.

Responsibility] 2. D - The level of detail required in a Project Management Plan would vary by project and would include only the details necessary for the project. B - A bidder conference is a good way to ensure all bidders have the same information at the same time and to ensure fairness and equity within the bidding process.

D - The correct response is A - Projects have both positive and negative stakeholders. All of these stakeholders need to be carefully managed and their details must be recorded in the project stakeholder register.

B - The project initiator or sponsor external to the project authorizes the project charter. However, a project manager should be involved in the process as early as possible.

B - This is known as Variance Analysis. As project manager, you would then attempt to determine the cause of the Variance, relative to the scope baseline and then decide on whether corrective action is required. A - Neither the project charter not the project management plan contains any project document templates. Templates are organizational process assets. B - Crashing and fast tracking can compress the project's schedule when necessary, but might come at a higher cost and rework potential.

D - Advertising is a good avenue to expand existing lists of sellers. Advertisements can be placed in general circulation publications in order to achieve this.

B - The seven basic tools of quality are: D - A fishbone diagram, also called a cause-and-effect diagram, helps identify potential causes of an issue or problem.

B - All of the tasks in the choices need to be carried out. However, the question is asking for the task to be carried out first. The identified issue must be documented in the project's issue log first. This should be captured and recorded during the meeting.

Rest of the tasks can be performed after the meeting. D - A staff release plan provides a clean break point for an individual and saves the project money in the process. A - Crashing is the technique that can be applied to compress the project schedule without changing the project scope. The other technique is Fast tracking.

A - The schedule variance is the earned value minus the planned value. At the end of the project, all of the planned values should be earned and the difference should be zero. C - Since the quantitative risk analysis is a more in-depth process, it should only be performed on prioritized risks to minimize impact to the overall project schedule.

B - The best choice is to notify the stakeholders that the scope has changed without authorization. Intentionally not following project process and policies for any reason is unacceptable. Knowingly ignoring an error in scope, schedule, cost, or other project factor, and not adhering to policies is a violation of PMI's code of ethics.

Further, project managers are bound by the code to report ethics violations to appropriate management. C - The project manager is not correct. A value greater than 1 is a favorable condition for the project. The project manager has incorrectly interpreted the situation. D - Analogous, parametric, and three-point estimating techniques are all accepted practices for determining the correct amount of time required for a portion of the project.

The Critical Path Analysis techniques evaluates the whole project schedule.

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A - Analogous estimation relies on comparing a project to previous such projects that were similar in nature. Management] A - A scatter diagram plots several occurrences of two variables one on each axis. A relationship can then often be determine between the two variables based on how closely they fit a geometric model.

C - Include the newly discovered information in your executive presentation. Failure to disclose a known risk until a mitigation plan is developed is a violation of the PMI code of ethics. It mandates that project managers are to be truthful in their communication and provide accurate and timely information. B - A cause-and-effect diagram helps determining the root cause behind a problem statement. The potential causes of a specific effect fall into these categories: A - The distinction between Progressive elaboration and Scope Creep needs to be understood since the two terms are different.

The changes to scope especially in an uncontrolled manner are called scope creep. In contrast, Progressive elaboration involves building on, or elaborating the output of a previous phase. B - The project scope statement is the correct response. This document describes the project's deliverables in detail and the work that is required to create those deliverables.

It also forms the baseline for evaluating whether requests for changes are within or outside the project's boundaries. C - A milestone chart displays only the key deliverables and is simple and easy to understand. C - Since Susan is planning to adjust her project stakeholder management plan, this implies that she is about to start the Control Stakeholder Engagement process.

The stakeholder management plan and the communication management plan are the components of the project management plan, hence these are already included. The project charter is not an input of the Control Stakeholder Engagement process. The missing input to the process is the project documents. A - All four of these are important to consider when considering someone for a position within the project team: C - Statistical sampling will provide sufficient inspection to ensure a high likelihood of a quality product, while saving money for the project.

D - A qualified seller list is a list of sellers that have been pre-screened for their qualifications and past experience, so that procurements are directed only to likely sellers who can work on the project.

C - Alternatives Identification concerns itself with identifying techniques to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project. Map-Out is not a valid technique - the other three namely brainstorming, lateral thinking and analysis of alternatives are techniques used to generate ideas for different approaches. A - You have a rough order of magnitude ROM estimate as you didn't have the chance to review your estimate and make it more accurate.

However, declaring a rough order of magnitude estimate as an accurate estimate is unethical. Denying the request is not advisable. The best option is to present the estimate to your boss first and explain the basis of the estimate. He can then decide if he wishes to present this to the steering committee or if he would like to postpone the meeting. B - The Project scope statement lists and describes the specific project assumptions associated with project scope and the potential impact of those assumptions if they prove to be false.

The assumptions listed in the detailed project scope statement are typically more numerous and detailed than the project assumptions listed in the project charter. A - The date through which the project has provided actual status and accomplishments is called the data date.

C - Risk diagramming techniques can include: B - Colocation is a tool and technique of the Develop Project Team process. The rest are the tools and techniques of the other three Human Resource Management processes. D - The Resource Breakdown Structure RBS is a hierarchical structure of resources by resource category and resource type used in resource leveling schedules and to develop resource-limited schedules.

This may also be used to identify and analyze project human resource assignments. C - A project manager's professional responsibilities are not limited to any one of the stakeholders. The other choices are correct but not complete by themselves. Expectations of every project stakeholder need to be managed. C - The CPI is calculated as the earned value divided by the actual cost.

An index of greater than one indicates that you have spent less than you forecasted to this point. A - A portfolio refers to a collection of projects of programs that are grouped together to facilitate their effective management.

The projects or programs need not be directly related or interdependent. B - The testing team is correct in their findings. Even though the new color scheme might be a better choice than the old one, all changes need to follow the change management process and go through the appropriate change and approval process.

B - While the risk identification checklist is a useful tool, it should be used in combination with the other tools, since it is impossible to cover all scenarios on one checklist.

C - A project manager should always communicate an accurate statement of the project status. There could be subsequent actions to discuss how the savings could be best utilized, whether there can be any cost sharing etc. D - An estimate of costs will serve as a benchmark on proposed responses. Any significant differences in cost estimates can be an indication that the procurement statement of work was deficient, ambiguous or the prospective sellers failed to understand the work.

B - Bidder conferences allow prospective sellers and downloaders to meet prior to submission of a bid. This ensures that all prospective sellers have a clear and common understanding of the procurement. This usually prevents any bidders from receiving preferential treatment. C - An issue log allows you to communicate, track, and resolve project issues. D - These are subsidiary plans and should be included in the Project Management Plan. D - No, the project team is not acquired immediately after signing of the project charter.

Acquisition of a project team starts with HR management planning in the planning process group, followed by the Acquisition of the team in the execution phase. The other answers are wrong because the acquisition of the project team is mentioned in the wrong phase.

Integration Test Questions 1. What is a recommended method for controlling change within a project? Have only the project manager able to initiate change B. Have each change approved or rejected through a formal change control process C. Allow each project member ultimate control of changes within their realm of the project without a review process D.

Freeze scope and allow absolutely no changes 2. The project manager of a project calls you in as a consultant to provide inputs on developing the Project Charter.Acquisition of a project team starts with HR management planning in the planning process group, followed by the Acquisition of the team in the execution phase. The WBS represents all product and project work. The project is ahead of schedule. Project management professionals continue to learn, to update, and to upgrade their knowledge and skills.

Project Management Training 4PM. Which of the follow is the best response? Take into account the time that may require for your breaks. Change request B. Estimate Activity Workload B. Variable sampling D.